If p and q are distinct primes, p > q, and (a,p) = 1, then a^(p-1) is
congruent to 1 (mod pq).
He asked if you solve it for me to let him know how you did it. I sent him the formula you posted last time.
hehe... have fun :)
Tarwyn
J J J
October 07, 2001
Hey Mike... He said he didn't make up theorums very often, but he played around a bit on Mathmatica and came up with this one for you:
If p and q are distinct primes, p > q, and (a,p) = 1, then a^(p-1) is
congruent to 1 (mod pq).
He asked if you solve it for me to let him know how you did it. I sent him the formula you posted last time.
hehe... have fun :)
Tarwyn
If p and q are distinct primes, p > q, and (a,p) = 1, then a^(p-1) is
congruent to 1 (mod pq).
He asked if you solve it for me to let him know how you did it. I sent him the formula you posted last time.
hehe... have fun :)
Tarwyn
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
No comments:
Post a Comment